Tuesday, April 7, 2009
Even the best legal interpretations of "9/10 of law" are in conflict
It occurred to me that there might be a good explanation for the "possession is 9/10 of the law" cliché besides the one I provided, so I did a little web-surfing and found all sorts of attempts to explain it. The best, I concluded, had to do with so-called "adverse possession," in which someone can gain ownership of a land by using it for a certain amount of time under certain circumstances. However, considering the list of conditions that have to be met, it could hardly be said that possession constitutes 90% of the matter. There were a couple of other explanations of similar caliber, such as that possession of property gives the owner the right to use it as he sees fit, which is bogus in light of zoning laws, and a claim that it's a bastardization of "possession is nine points of the law," although nobody could come up with the supposed nine points. So, I still contend that it was intended to mean that possession is 90% of Satanism. The rest is BS.
Posted by nonastronaut at 10:06 PM